Finance cheetsheet Essay - 824 Words

A 1)Working capital requirement = Accounts receivable + Inventories + Prepaid expenses – Accounts payable – Accrued expenses 2) Managerial balance sheets What is the relationship between these ratios and Sentec’s return on equity (ROE) over the three-year period? Operating margin = EBIT/Sales Invested capital turnover = Sales/Invested capital Return on invested capital = EBIT/Invested capital Financial multiplier = (EBT/EBIT) Ã…~ (Invested capital/Owners’ equity) Tax effect = EAT/EBT Return on equity = EAT/Owners’ equity 2008 Operating margin = $650/$22,100 = 2.94% Invested capital turnover = $22,100/$5,730 = 3.86 Return on invested capital = $650/$5,730 = 11.34% Financial multiplier = ($540/$650) *($5,730/$4,130)†¦show more content†¦is currently $1 per share and is supposed to grow at 10% a year forever. Its share price is $30. What is your best estimate of Divo’s cost of equity? According to the dividend discount model with constant growth expectations: Po= Therefore, the return expected by the company shareholders, kE, is: Ke= DIV1 = $1.10 is the dividend expected for next year [$1.00* (1 + 0.10) = $1.10, where 0.10 or 10 percent is the expected growth rate of dividends], P0 = $30 is the current share price, and g = 0.10 is the expected dividends’ growth rate. Thus: Ke=1.3/30+ 0.1= 0.0366+0.10=0.1366=13.66 percent D The firm is asking the finance department of FarWest for an estimate of its cost of capital. FarWest can borrow long term at 7%; its corporate tax rate is 40%. Its beta coefficient is 1.05. The rate of interest on government bonds is currently 5.2%, and the market risk premium is 4%. How would you estimate the firm’s weighted average cost of capital (WACC) if its target debt-to-equity ratio is 1.20? Step 1: Estimate the firm’s after-tax cost of debt. The firm’s after-tax cost of debt, Kd (1 – TC), where Kd is the pretax cost of debt and TC is the corporate tax rate, is KD (1 – TC) = 7%(1 – 0.40) = 4.2% Step 2: Estimate the firm’s cost of equity based on the data. According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), we have: kE = RF + ÃŽ ² * (RM – RF) where RF = 5.2 percent is the